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BG Hokie

Joined: 12/13/2005 Posts: 43473
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I presume the parentheses to represent an example but I agree it muddies


the interpretation a bit if that is, indeed, the entirety of how the rule is written. As you note, there is some subjectivity with respect to the individual scorer regarding judgments as to whether the runner at 1st would be safe or out. But in the scenario the fielder fields it cleanly, and keeps the runner on 2nd never making a throw, he is showing indifference to the batter and it is ruled a fielder's choice as opposed to a base hit (assuming of course that the scorer determines that the fielder could have thrown the runner out at first). In the scenario that the bunt carries a pitcher away from 1st base (especially in the case of a left handed pitcher) and the scorekeeper rules that the batter could not have been thrown out, I think a hit could certainly be awarded. The function of the runner staying put was enabled by the fielder's proximity to 3rd given the location of the bunt. So there is certainly a subjective element to it, as there should be.

[Post edited by BG Hokie at 01/25/2017 10:05AM]

(In response to this post by Manbearpig)

Posted: 01/25/2017 at 10:01AM



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Current Thread:
 
  
Baseball scoring question -- public knowledge 01/25/2017 08:21AM
  Fielder's indifference? ** -- PhotoHokieNC 01/25/2017 09:27AM
  Why do you hate Cecil? ** -- 48zip 01/25/2017 10:56AM
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  Yeah it seems like 2 wouldn't be fielders choice -- Manbearpig 01/25/2017 09:22AM
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