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VTHokie2000

Joined: 01/01/2005 Posts: 33818
Likes: 12458


The only potential issue with him is that whomever "gave"


him the land (not sure if it was the crown or VA governor) didn't truly "own" the land. At least the land may have "belonged" to the Native Americans even though they didn't have the same definition of "ownership" as defined by the European settlers. The SCOTUS ruling on Oklahoma may also be applicable here.

(In response to this post by RJHokie)

Posted: 07/10/2020 at 9:54PM



+1

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